04: Theory Test Questions of 2004 National League of Secondary Students in Biology
Province and city ______ Name _______ School ___________ Class _________ Exam No. ____________
Note: 1 Do the answer on the answer sheet
2 Exam time: 2004 May 16, 2004 9:00-11:00, full paper 140 marks
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Four choices, 1 mark each, ***100 marks)
1 Meiosis in higher plants occurs A before gamete formation B after gamete formation C before spore formation D after spore formation
2 The bean sprouts that we often eat, which are the seedlings of soybeans or mung beans, and their size upright is due to
A a developed mechanical nexus B a developed aeration tissue C a thick cuticle D the swelling phenomenon of the cells
3 the dry plant body does not have the characteristics of
A leaves become smaller or degraded B stems fleshy C epidermal cells of the corners of the thickening D the lack of stomata on the leaves
4 aquatic angiosperm stems structural features are A epidermis forming root hairs B well-developed mechanical tissues C well-developed aeration tissues D well-developed xylem
5The main difference between gymnosperm and angiosperm seeds is A the presence or absence of a seed coat B the size of the embryo C a different origin of the endosperm D the presence or absence of an endosperm
6The tubes in the vascular bundles of a plant are carrying out their functions when they are
A dead B alive, with only the cell wall lignified C alive, with only its nucleolus gone D is alive, with only one large vesicle
7 The number of seed kernels in a pod is determined by
A the number of pistils in the flower B the number of centrioles in the pistil C the number of ovules in the ovary D the number of embryos in the embryo sac
8 Which of the following is most important in the upward transport of water in a large tree
A the action of capillary tubes in the ligamentous part of the phloem B the active transport of xylem C leaf transpiration D leaf transpiration transport C leaf transpiration D water excretion
9 A student added saliva to a starch solution and then placed it in each of the following treatments in the hope of converting the starch into monosaccharides and disaccharides, which condition would be the best in his experiment
A placed the mixture in a refrigerator at 4°C B placed the mixture in a warm box at 30°C
C boiled the mixture and then placed it in a warm box at 30°C D Place the mixture in a 70°C warm box
10 A plant has a chromosome number of 24, its macrospore mother cell undergoes meiosis, and the resulting cell has three degenerates, and a cell undergoes three mitotic divisions, **** how many cells are formed? How many chromosomes are contained in each of its cells
A4 cells each contain 12 chromosomes B4 cells each contain 24 chromosomes
C8 cells each contain 12 chromosomes D8 cells each contain 24 chromosomes
11 Cells undergo aerobic respiration with electron transfer taking place in the
A cytoplasm B the inner membranes of mitochondria C mitochondria C mitochondria D matrix
12 The energy for life on Earth comes from A food B water C sun DATP
13 One of the most important reasons why the compound eyes of moths can be imaged in low light is that they
A have corneal crystals B have a special structure of pigment cells C have a special structure of the cones D have a special structure of the optic rods
14 cause the respiration of the animal to The hormone that causes accelerated respiration, faster heartbeat, increased heart contraction, and constriction of small peripheral blood vessels is
A thyroid hormone B insulin C adrenal poly D adrenocorticotropic hormone secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
15 Uric acid is the main excretion of which of the following animals
A mammals, birds, crustaceans B reptiles, insects, mammals C birds, oligochaetes, insects D Reptiles, insects, birds
16 Where does the food of a cow undergo preliminary digestion and then be vomited back up into the mouth for re-chewing
A in the rumen and reticulum B in the rumen and crumulus C in the valvula and reticulum D in the valvula and crumulus
17 The direction in which the fresh air passes through the lungs of a bird when it breathes is
A In inhalation fresh air passes through the lungs from cephalic to cephalic, and exhalation passes through the lungs from tail to head through the lungs
BFresh air passes through the lungs from head to tail on both inhalation and exhalation
CFresh air passes through the lungs from tail to head on both inhalation and exhalation
DFresh air passes through the lungs from head to tail on inhalation, and does not pass through the lungs from tail to head on exhalation
18Which of the following are epidermal derivatives of the formation of
A mammary gland, fingernail, nails, and other organs of the body
Being a bird, the lungs of a bird are formed from the skin and the skin.
A mammary glands, nails, hairs B round scales, pecten scales, bird feathers C sweat glands, antlers, nails D horny scales, shield scales, cow horns
19 Two pairs of genes located on an autosomal chromosome are in free association (Aa and Bb), and three pairs are in perfect interlocking (EFG/efg), and the percentage of such an organism that produces dominant pure gametes is A1/2 B1/4 C1/8 D1/32
20Human albinism is an inborn metabolic disease caused by a deficiency of the enzyme that synthesizes melanin. The gene that encodes this enzyme is
A microefficiency gene B pseudogene C regulatory gene D structural gene
21The molecular mechanism of the Hbβ strand mutation that causes sickle-cell anemia is
A code-shift mutation B base deletion C base substitution D base insertion
22An allele is defined as
A two identical genes B two recessive genes C two dominant genes D two genes of different forms on a pair of homologous chromosomes
23Restriction endonucleases can exclusively recognize
A specific base pairs of double-stranded DNA B a specific sequence of bases of double-stranded DNA
C specific triplet codons D none of the above
24 The fatty acid that contains the highest degree of unsaturation is A tallow B peanut oil C cold-water marine fish oil D tropical marine fish oil
25 The main constituent of pectin in higher plants is A alginic acid B galacturonic acid C glucuronic acid D mannan
26 Flooding causes plant deaths due to
A high soil water potential B lack of oxygen to the roots of the plant C toxic effects of CO2 produced by respirationD dissolution of substances in the soil in water to a concentration that is toxic
27 In nature, the main decomposers of cellulose, hemicellulose, and lignin are A Actinomycetes B Yeasts C Bacteria D Moulds
26 Bacterial spores can survive under ordinary conditions for up to A A few hours B a few days C 12 months D a few years and up to a few decades
29If you collect 167 snails from an area of 5 square meters, the values needed to calculate the biomass of such snails include: ① total number ② total weight ③ total area ④ total volume A ① + ② B ② C ② + ③ D ① + ④
20Some people believe that it is the water that limits the development of land that restricts the development of oceanic organisms. is A minerals B oxygen C nutrients D high salt content
31 The effects of ice on the surface of lakes on fish living in the lakes include
① lack of oxygen is not good for fish life ② reduces the rate of decline in the water temperature ③ increases the ammonia in the water ④ reduces the temperature of the water
A ① B ① + ② C ① + ② + ③ D ① + ③ + ④
32 Human haploid genome refers to the number of chromosomes present on the chromosome. refers to all the genetic information present on __________ chromosomes
A22 autosomes B22 autosomes + X chromosomes C22 autosomes + Y chromosomes D22 autosomes + X + Y
33Acid rain is formed mainly due to the formation of ANH3 BN2 CSO2, NO DO2 in the ＿＿＿＿ of industrial exhaust gases
34 In order not to make the Shi soil sclerosis, the nitrogen fertilizer can be applied are A urea NH4NO3 B (NH4)2SO4 CNaNO3 DNH4Cl
35 Pine seeds to break the dormancy of the commonly ＿＿＿＿＿＿ used treatments A add water B add temperature C low temperature D humidification
36 In the lightward movement of the embryonic sheath, the photoreceptor site is the A apical part B the prolongation zone C the base D the inner part of the embryonic sheath. base D bud within the germ sheath
37 According to the classification of storage substances, more than 90% of plants have seeds that are A oily B proteinaceous C starchy D sugary
38 Blood makes up A 5% B 7% C 9% D 11% of the body's weight
39 The amount of urine that A increases when the blood pressure is lowered B decreases C remains unchanged D is irrelevant
40 After hemorrhage the blood volume is recovery with the help of vascular
A arterial vasoconstriction B arterial vasodilatation C venous vasoconstriction D venous vasodilatation
41The main site of apoplexy of motor function is the A cerebellum B the left side of the brain C the right side of the brain D pituitary gland
42Oxygen is infused with 5% carbon dioxide because 5% carbon dioxide is
A a respiratory stimulant B a need of the body C a nerve stimulant D a vascular softener
43Human brain nerves have A12 pairs B10 pairs C14 pairs D20 pairs
44People tend to blanch when they are emotionally stressed as a result of an increase in ___ hormones, which constricts the blood vessels in the face
A adrenaline and norepinephrine B thyroxin C insulin D sex hormones
45Predators have a significant effect on prey populations while parasites have little effect on host populations because
A parasites do not kill hosts while predators kill prey B parasites secrete only toxins while predators kill prey
C parasites kill hosts while predators kill only old, weak, diseased, and disabled prey
D parasites favor host growth
46Which of the following descriptions is incorrect?
A fish scales are epidermal scales B human hair is an epidermal derivative C cow horns originate from the epidermis D snake scales are epidermal scales
47 The nitrogen-fixing enzyme complex in nitrogen-fixing bacteria converts atmospheric nitrogen, into plant-available forms of nitrogen, The products of the nitrogen-fixing enzyme complex are
A ammonia B nitrites C nitrates D amino acids
48 The proportion of people in a population who can roll their tongues is 64%, and being able to roll one's tongue is allele-determined. what are the chances that a person who rolls their tongue will marry a person who does not roll their tongue and get a child who can roll their tongue?A5/8 B3/8 C1/8 D6/8
49What solution is used to dissolve agarose prior to agarose electrophoresis?ADistilled water BTap water CBuffer solution DSucrose solution
50Insects After feathering, the body wall undergoes a hardening process, which is ＿＿＿＿＿ a process of change
A protein B polysaccharide C lipid D calcification of other substances
51Schistosoma japonicum is an important parasite of human beings. The intermediate hosts of Schistosoma japonicum are ① nails snail ② pig, and the invasive modes of parasite are ③ feeding in ④ skin burrowing in. The intermediate host and mode of invasion of Schistosoma japonicum is A①③ B①④ C②③ D②④
52 The distinctive features of ferns are A fistulated young leaves, compound leaves, and rhizomes B fistulated young leaves, simple leaves, and rhizomes
C extended young leaves, compound leaves, and vine stems D extended young leaves, simple leaves, and rhizomes
53 There is a couple who have normal color vision and both of their fathers are both red-green color blind. What is the
color vision of the sons and daughters of this couple likely to be A 1/2 of their boys are normal and 1/2 are colorblind B 1/2 of their children are normal and 1/2 are colorhundred
C all of their boys are normal D 3/4 of their children are normal and 1/4 are colorblind
54 There is a test tube in which spherical yeast grows, and another tube in which spherical yeast is the protoplasts, how can they be distinguished in the simplest way?
A compare the size under a microscope, yeast is large, yeast protoplast is small B compare the size under a microscope, yeast is small, yeast protoplast is large
C add water to observe under a microscope yeast is small, yeast protoplast becomes larger D add water to observe under a microscope yeast is present, yeast protoplast is ruptured
55 Of the three groups of animals, fish, islands and mammals, the goodness of vision is The relationship is
A fish>bird>mammal B bird>mammal>fish C mammal>fish>bird D bird>fish>mammal
56 Observation of the ciliated system of the mealybugs (touched system), there are five steps to be taken, and they are
① Observation under a microscope ② Illumination by a bright light ③ Addition of 3-5% silver nitrate staining. -5% silver nitrate staining ④Coating the slide with protein glue
⑤Putting a drop of liquid of Cnidaria to dry. B⑤ - ④ - ② - ③ - ①C② - ⑤ - ④ - ③ - ① D⑤ - ④ - ③ - ② - ③ - ① C② -⑤ -④ -④ -③ -① D⑤ -④ - ③ - ② - ①
57The physical factors that denature proteins are
A heating, X-ray irradiation B ultrasound, UV irradiation C high pressure, violent oscillations D all of the above denaturing factors
58The hormone that increases rapidly with each meal a day is A thyroxine B thyroxine B thyroid hormone. The hormone is A thyroxine B glucagon C insulin D parathyroid hormone
59 In the following series of biochemical reactions that the body has, lack of enzyme A leads to pyruvic aciduria (PKU) lack of enzyme B leads to urinary kernic aciduria (AKU)
A B
Phenylalanine →→→→ Tyrosine →→→→CO2+H2O
The two diseases Neither are sexually linked, what is the phenotype of the children of a PKU patient married to another AKU patient?
A all their children will be sick B all their children will be normal
C half their children will have PKU and the other half will be normal D half their children will have AKU and the other half will be normal
60Land organisms evolved more quickly than sea organisms because
A. life began in the oceans B. survival in the oceans was more difficult C conditions for survival on land were were stable D survival conditions in the ocean were more stable
61 During meiosis A cells divide twice and chromosomes are replicated once B cells divide twice and chromosomes are replicated twice
C cells divide once and chromosomes are replicated once D cells divide once and chromosomes are replicated twice
62 A microscope is a tool used to observe slices of plants and animals and microorganisms, and the evaluation of the A microscope preferred factors are
A objective and eyepiece magnification B clarity C famous manufacturers D parts, functionality
63 compounds that do not participate in redox reactions are ANAD + BNADP + CCOA D lipoic acid amide
64 the following corresponds correctly to
A bryophyte - -gametophytes live independently, have a cervical ovipositor B ferns - gametophytes are parasitic on sporophytes, flowering and fruiting
C gymnosperms - gametophytes live independently, flowering and fruiting D angiosperms -- gametophytes parasitic on sporophytes, cervical ovipositor
65 The following correspond correctly
A Stone pines - bryophytes B Pinus sylvestris - Ferns C Thuja - angiosperms D Puffballs - Gymnosperms
66 The following correspond correctly to the following A winged fruit - dandelion B longhorn fruit -- elm C berry -- rape D drupe -- peach
67 The following correspond correctly
A potato -- root metamorphosis B turnip -- stem metamorphosis C sweet potato -- root metamorphosis D lotus root -- leaf metamorphosis
68In the figure below, ①, ② and ③ represent the population changes of three different types of animals, which relationship is correct?
①Drosophila ②Monkey ③Frog
69The following cellular components and their functions, which is correct?A Mitochondria - synthesize polypeptide chains B Chloroplasts - formation of ATP
C Ribosomes - photosynthesis D Smooth endosperm -- photosynthesis D smooth endoplasmic reticulum -- polypeptide and lipid synthesis
70 Which of the following cellular weaving components is correctly related to its function?
A Rough endoplasmic reticulum - cellular assembly of ribosomal subunits B Golgi apparatus - internal transportation and delivery of proteins and lipids
C Nucleolus - Intracellular digestion D Cytoskeleton - modification of polypeptide chains
71 Indicate the correct relationship between the following animals and their characteristics A Carp - does not drink water, excretes urea B Pigeon - - actively excretes salt and ammonia
C whale - does not drink water and excretes urea D rat - actively excretes salt and ammonia
72 Which of the following organisms is related to the extraembryonic membrane visible during development is correct?
A fish - amniotic membrane B frog - urinary bladder C reptile - yolk sac D frog - chorionic Membrane
73 Which of the following is true about the substances and related statements regarding calcium absorption in the body?
A Vitamin D - inhibits Ca accumulation in the body B Vitamin C - promotes Ca accumulation in the body
C Parathyroid gland - inhibits blood calcium level hormone secretion D thyroid - gland that secretes calcitonin
74CH3-CHOH-COO-→CH3-CO-COO- Which type of reaction does it belong to
A oxidation reaction B decarboxylation reaction C carboxylation reaction D phosphorylation reaction
75CH3-CH2-CO-COO-→CH3-CH2- CHO+CO2 belongs to which type of reaction
A Oxidation reaction B Decarboxylation reaction C Phosphorylation reaction D Hydrolysis reaction
76CH3-CO-S-CoA+HCO3-+ATP→-OOC- CH2-CO-S-CoA + ADP + Pi belongs to which type of reaction
A oxidation reaction B hydrolysis reaction C carboxylation reaction D phosphorylation reaction
Questions 77-79 are shown in the diagram below (indicating a DNA polymerase Substrate for action)
77In the diagram A represents A primer B template C 3' end of primer D 5' end of primer
78In the diagram D represents A 3' end of primer B 3' end of template C 5' end of primer D 5' end of template ' end
79 In the figure E represents the 3' end of A primer 3' end of B template 5' end of C primer 5' end of D template
80 The following figure shows the template strand of mRNA: 5'CTT TGA TAA GGA TAG CCC TTC 3'
The base sequence of the mRNA after being transcribed is A pyruvate BNADH CH+ DNAD+
81 Reaction formula: pyruvate + NADH+H+→ lactate + NAD+, where the reducing agent is
82 According to the structure of the photoreceptor and the direction of light in the diagram, which one is the photoreceptor of the insect
83-86 questions are shown in the following diagrams (indicating different fruit types)
83 The code (i) in the diagram indicates A sepal remnant B receptacle C seed D placenta
84 The code (ii) in the diagram indicates A pedicel B receptacle C seed D placenta
85 ③ represents A sepal remnant B receptacle C seed D pedicel
86 ④ represents A sepal remnant B receptacle C seed D placenta
87 There are three types of age distribution in the population: increasing, stable and receding: select the increasing type from the figure below
88-90 questions are shown in the figure below (which represents the carbon cycle on Earth)
88-90 questions are shown in the figure below (which represents the carbon cycle on Earth)
88-90 questions are shown in the figure below (which represents the carbon cycle on Earth)
89 Questions are asked in the figure below. The carbon cycle on Earth)
88The process represented by A in the diagram is A combustion B consumption C photosynthesis D decomposition
89The process represented by C in the diagram is A respiration B consumption C photosynthesis D decomposition
90The process represented by F in the diagram is A combustion B consumption C death D decomposition
91-93Some enzymes are important in muscle glycogen metabolism. play an important regulatory role in muscle glycogen metabolism, such as glycogen phosphorylase, which catalyzes
the degradation of glycogen into glucose-1-phosphate (GIP). However, the phosphorylation (activation) of glycogen phosphorylase itself is coupled with the reaction of the kinase of glycogen phosphorylase (GPK) and the phosphodiesterase of glycogen phosphorylase (PGP), the former reaction requires ATP to produce ADP, and the latter reaction requires water (H2O) to produce phosphoric acid (Pi), and the full reaction is shown in the figure
91 In the figure (iii) indicates AGPK B ATP CADP DPGP
92The diagram ② indicates AGPK BH2O CADP DPGP
9390The diagram ⑤ indicates APi BATP CADP DPGP
94The entire genome of Drosophila contains 165×108bp (base pairs), and if the DNA is a long linear molecule replicating at 30bp per second, and there is only one bi-directional replication start and the start is at the midpoint, the entire genome would have to be replicated. At the midpoint, how many days will it take for the entire genome to replicate A24 days B32 days C28 days D42 days
95 The entire genome of Drosophila contains 1.65×108bp (base pairs), and if the DNA is a long linear molecule that replicates at 30bp per second, *** there are 2,000 bi-directional replication sites, how many minutes will it take for the entire genome to replicate A23 minutes B32 minutes C56 minutes D44 minutes
96 The entire genome of Drosophila contains 165×108bp (base pairs), if the DNA is a long thread-like molecule that replicates 30bp per second, in the early embryo, replication is only 5 seconds, if the starting points are at equal distances, and the starting points start replicating in both directions at the same time, how many starting points are there for this replication time
A8020 B10260 C7200 D9170
97Respiratory quotient is an important index of respiration it is the ratio of the moles or volume of CO2 given off by respiration to the moles or volume of O2 absorbed
The molecular formula of castor oil is C57H101O9, if it is a respiratory substrate and is completely oxygenated
C57H101O9 +O2→ CO2 + H2O. CO2 + H2O, the respiration quotient is A0.57 B1.65 C0.73 D0.89
98 an ornamental plant, a pure orchid variety crossed with a pure bright red variety, F1 is orchid, F1 self-crossing, F2 is 9 Orchid: 6 Purple: 1 Bright Red If the purple plant in F2 is pollinated with a bright red plant, the posterior phenotypes and their proportions are
A2 Bright Red :1 Orchid B2 Purple: l Bright Red C1 Bright Red: 1 Purple D3 Purple: 1 Orchid
99 Pea-crowned chickens crossed with rose-crowned chickens, F1 is walnut-crowned, F1 selfed, and its F2 is 9 walnut-crowned: 3 pea-crowned: 3 rose
Rose-crowned: 1 single-crowned. Let the rose-crowned chickens in the F2 be mated with the single-crowned chickens, then the phenotypes and their proportions in the offspring are
A1 rose: 2 single-crowned B2 pecan: 1 single-crowned C3 rose: 1 single-crowned D2 rose: 1 single-crowned
100Two types of DNA molecules (① and ②) have the same base pairs (1000 bp) but it has different base compositions, ① contains 44%
of G +C, ② contains 66% of the G + C in the DNA of ① and ② of each how many T
A340 560 B240 480 C560 340 D480 240
Two, multiple-choice questions (each question has - or more than one correct answer answer correct answer to 2 points; do not answer or do not answer and did not choose the wrong answer) 0 points: as long as the choice of the wrong answer to this sub-question negative 0.5 points. This question is worth 40 points, the lowest score is 0 points).
101 Preparation of monoclonal antibodies requires the use of A rabbits B cell cultures C mice D microinjections
102 The process of electron transfer in photosynthesis
A electrons are always transferred in pairs B electrons are always transferred in unpaired pairs
C electrons are always transferred from a low-potential carrier to a high-potential carrier D chlorophyll is involved in electron transfer
103 Animal cell fusion can be induced by A addition of organic solvents B use of viruses C use of electrical stimulation D repeated freezing and thawing
104 The following statements about the genome are correct
A The chloroplast genome is relatively constant in size B The chloroplast genome is similar in size to that of a cyanobacteria genome, which suggests that chloroplasts are endo***ogenous in origin
C A number of mitochondrial genomes have been discovered that consist of a bipartite mitochondrial genome. mitochondrial genomes are composed of double-stranded RNA D the full gene sequences of a number of eukaryotic organisms have been largely determined
105Which of the following diseases are directly caused by viral infestation A Hepatitis B B Foot and Mouth Disease C Mad Cow Disease D Avian Influenza
106Which of the following statements about biological nitrogen fixation are correct
A Nitrogen-fixing organisms are prokaryotic organisms B Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are ****-generating C Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are ************************. **biotic C nitrogen-fixing bacteria are all anaerobic D all nitrogen-fixing enzymes are sensitive to oxygen
107 The enzymes that are used when cloning a fragment of DNA onto a plasmid are
A ligase B DNA restriction endonuclease C phosphatase D DNA polymerase
108 Which of the following statements about phytoplankton is not correct A The most abundant phytoplankton in the ocean is cyanobacteria
108 Which of the following is not correct about phytoplankton? phytoplankton is cyanobacteria
B all phytoplankton in the deep sea can grow heterotrophically C some phytoplankton can produce toxins that are harmful to humans
D bloom formation is caused by a rapid rise in the species and number of phytoplankton due to eutrophication
109 Which of the following is a ****ogenic relationship A a pig and a roundworm B a lichen C a hermit crab and an anemone D a manchineal Redbud and ichthyoplasmosis
110Which of the following statements about cells are trueA The first cells to be observed using a microscope were the epithelial cells of plants
B The concept of a cell was introduced by WallaceC All cells have a nucleus except for specialized cells (e.g., red blood cells)
D In addition to the nucleus, there are organelles that can have independent genetic material Presence
111Which of the following substances can inhibit bacterial growth A penicillin B colchicine CRNA enzymes D gibberellins
112C4 plants can grow better in low light compared to C3 plants AC4 plants can grow better in low C02 concentrations
CC4 plants use high photosynthetic rates to compensate for losses due to high photorespiration DC4 Plant photosynthetic rates are relatively less inhibited by high temperatures
113 Commonly used model organisms are A mice D zebrafish C nematode worms D fruit flies
114 Which of the following scientific studies won a Nobel Prize A discovery of the double-helix structure of DNA B method of sequencing dideoxy-DNA
CDNA polymerase chain reaction D method of sequencing the N-terminal end of proteins
115Which of the following statements about the DNA polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is correct A the reaction requires a pair of primers
B the reaction is always performed at a temperature higher than 70°C C the addition of ligase should be required D the reaction does not require the addition of restriction endonuclease
116Protochorionic animals differ from postchorionic animals in that they A have a somatic luminal membrane B the skeleton is not mesodermally developed C D no gill slits
117Which of the following animals cannot live in the lakes of the middle and lower reaches of the Yangtze River
A flagellates, oligochaetes B nematodes, rotifers C Servilia, rotifers D stigmata, stromatopods
118Reptiles share the same characteristics as birds***A dry skin, epidermal cuticle products, single occipital condyle, and discoidal clefts of the oviposition
B dry skin, epidermal cuticle products
B dry skin, epidermal cuticle products, single occipital condyles, and discoid clefts
p>B dry skin, epidermal cuticle products, constant body temperature, and a discoidal form of oogenesis
C lack of skin glands, epidermal cuticle products, bicoccipital condyles, and a spiral form of oogenesis
D lack of skin glands, unicoccipital condyles, and a discoidal form of oogenesis, bicirrhosis
119 Which of the following is false A vertebrate gastric juices have a pH of l.5~25 containing pepsin, invertebrate pepsin exists in an alkaline environment
B Vertebrate gastric juice pH 35~4 5 contains pepsin, invertebrate pepsin also exists in an acidic environment.
C Vertebrate gastric juice pH 15 to 25,mammals contain the enzyme rennet, which is also present in invertebrate digestive juices.
D Vertebrates have gastric juice pH 35~45,contain the enzyme lactase and invertebrates do not have the enzyme lactase
120 The feature that distinguishes insects from all other arthropods is
A most have wings B have three pairs of thoracic legs C tracheal system for respiration D marsupial tubes for excretion
National League of Secondary Schools in Biology 2004 Answer Sheet
I, /p>
5 C 25 B 45 A 65 B 85 C
6 A 26 B 46 A 66 D 86 B
7 C 27 D 47 A 67 C 87 A
8 C 28 D 48 A 68 C 88 C
9 B 29 C 49 C 69 B or D 89 B
10 C 30 C 50 A 70 B 90 D
11 B 31 B 51 B 71 C 91 A
12 C 32 D 52 A 72 C 92 C
13 B 33 C 53 A 73 D 93 D
14 C 34 A 54 D 74 A 94 B
15 D 35 C 55 B 75 B 95 A
16 A 36 A 56 A 76 C 96 Nullified
17 C 37 A 57 D 77 A 97 C
18 A 38 B 58 C 78 B 98 B
19 C 39 B 59 B 79 C 99 D
20 D 40 A 60 D 80 B 100 C
II Multiple Choice Questions (Each question has one or more correct answers. The answer is completely correct 2 points; not answer or not completely answer and did not choose the wrong answer 0 points; as long as the choice of the wrong answer to this question negative 0.5 points. (This question is worth 40 points, and the lowest score is 0.)
Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. B D 10 D 15 A D 20 A B
4 A D 9 B D 14 A B C 19 B C D Score